A couple kept the majority of their finances in one account. That account belongs to the husband, with the wife able to withdraw up to a certain limit from the account but she is not an owner. (Not sure how that works, but that is how she described the situation to me.)
The husband became incapacitated and unable to handle financial matters. The wife took over day to day financial management but did not have POA .
She was able to keep the household going for a while because bills fell below her withdrawl limit. However, when she was forced (which is a whole 'nutha story) to bring her husband to an Altersheim, those bills were well beyond her spending limit.
While she was trying to work out how to access the family accounts in order to pay her husband's Altersheim bills - which took a very long time - her only option was to liquidate her few personal assets, including selling her property in her home country, so that her husband's Altersheim and medical bills could be paid on time.
So my question:
When the sad day comes that she is widowed, the estate will be split between the wife and other relatives. In determining the value of the estate prior to division, can she deduct/claim/whatever from the estate for the money she spent from her personal assets used to pay her husband's Altersheim bills? Or is she out of luck?
Any insights would be appreciated.